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I was too hasty to generalize an observation. Here's my conjecture (which was easily rejected by a counterexample by no less than James Yorke of University of Maryland):
Let {cn} be a convergent infinite sequence that does not converge to a constant sequence. Derive another infinite sequence {dn} as follows:
dn=(cn-cn-1)/(cn+1-cn)
Then, {dn} is also convergent.
Unable to prove or disprove the conjecture, I emailed several mathematicians around the world to contaminate the challenge. Within few hours, James Yorke replied. Days later, Richard Taylor of Harvard University provided another counterexample. Actually, I am not sure if Taylor's sequence was really a counterexample since I did not check it out. The third counterexample, similar to Yorke's, is from my masteral thesis adviser and theoretical physics buddy Perry Esguerra of University of the Philippines.
I thank them all.
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